Mock Test 1
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Mock Test 1

Prepare with precision for the RBI Grade B Phase 1 Exam using our full-length mock test, crafted to replicate the real exam interface, pattern, and difficulty level.
Each mock is designed by exam experts to strengthen your accuracy, time management, and confidence before the final exam.


🔍 Test Structure

The mock test includes all four sections of the official RBI Grade B Phase 1 exam:

Section Number of Questions Total Marks
General Awareness 80 80
Quantitative Aptitude 30 30
Reasoning Ability 60 60
English Language 30 30

🕒 Total Duration: 120 minutes
📊 Total Marks: 200


⚖️ Marking Scheme

  • +1 mark for each correct answer

  • -0.25 mark for each incorrect answer

  • 0 marks for unattempted questions

This negative marking ensures an authentic exam experience and helps you evaluate your accuracy realistically.

1 / 200

Category: General Awareness

1 points

1. The time limit for filing an updated income tax return under Section 139(8A) has been extended. What is the new maximum period for filing an updated return from the end of the relevant assessment year?

2 / 200

Category: General Awareness

1 points

2. What was the Ways and Mean Advances (WMA) limit fixed by the Reserve Bank of India for the second half of FY 2025-26?

3 / 200

Category: General Awareness

1 points

3. What was the surplus amount transferred by the Reserve Bank to the Central Government for the year 2024-25, and what was its approximate year-on-year growth?

4 / 200

Category: General Awareness

1 points

4. What is the baseline assumption for the price of the Indian basket of crude oil for generating projections for 2024-25?

5 / 200

Category: General Awareness

1 points

5. As of March 31, 2025, what was the total amount realized by creditors from the 1,194 companies successfully resolved under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC) framework?

6 / 200

Category: General Awareness

1 points

6. In a significant economic milestone reported in May 2025, India became the world's 3rd largest economy. Which country did India surpass to achieve this rank?

7 / 200

Category: General Awareness

1 points

7. The benefit for eligible start-ups under Section 80-IAC, which provides for a 100% deduction of profits for three consecutive years, has been extended. The benefit is now available to start-ups incorporated before which date?

8 / 200

Category: General Awareness

1 points

8. India’s foreign exchange reserves stood at $676.3 billion as of April 4, 2025. Approximately how many months of import cover did this level of reserves provide?

9 / 200

Category: General Awareness

1 points

9. What was the real Gross Domestic Product (GDP) growth rate recorded in Q1:2024-25?

10 / 200

Category: General Awareness

1 points

10. As of April 4, 2025, what was the level of India's foreign exchange reserves?

11 / 200

Category: General Awareness

1 points

11. The Provisioning Coverage Ratio (PCR) of Scheduled Commercial Banks improved in September 2024. What was this ratio?

12 / 200

Category: General Awareness

1 points

12. The Finance Bill 2025 provides for retrospective exemption from service tax for reinsurance services provided by insurance companies under which specific schemes?

13 / 200

Category: General Awareness

1 points

13. According to the macro stress tests for credit risk, what is the projected Gross NPA (GNPA) ratio for Scheduled Commercial Banks by September 2024 under the baseline scenario?

14 / 200

Category: General Awareness

1 points

14. What was the policy repo rate set by the Monetary Policy Committee in its February 2025 meeting?

15 / 200

Category: General Awareness

1 points

15. Based on the financial soundness indicators for banks in India at the end of June 2024, which of the following combinations of Gross NPA ratio, Net NPA ratio, and Capital Adequacy Ratio is correct?

16 / 200

Category: General Awareness

1 points

16. In the Monetary Policy Committee meeting of August 2025, what was the policy repo rate maintained at?

17 / 200

Category: General Awareness

1 points

17. What was the value of the RBI's Financial Inclusion Index (FI-Index) for the period ending March 2024?

18 / 200

Category: General Awareness

1 points

18. To bolster depositor confidence, the government increased deposit insurance coverage in April 2025. What is the new coverage limit, and what was the total bank deposit base in India as of September 2025?

19 / 200

Category: General Awareness

1 points

19. The 'credit-to-GDP gap' is a key indicator of financial cycle stress. How did this gap change for India from Q1 of FY23 to Q1 of FY25?

20 / 200

Category: General Awareness

1 points

20. What was the Gross Market Borrowing planned by the Government of India for the second half of the fiscal year 2025-26?

21 / 200

Category: General Awareness

1 points

21. Considering the Union Budget 2025-26 presentation, what was the specific capital expenditure allocation, and what approximate percentage of GDP did this amount represent?

22 / 200

Category: General Awareness

1 points

22. What growth rate is projected for India's economy in FY26?

23 / 200

Category: General Awareness

1 points

23. Retail headline inflation (CPI) softened during April – December 2024 compared to FY24. What was the average CPI inflation during this period?

24 / 200

Category: General Awareness

1 points

24. The number of Initial Public Offers (IPOs) saw a significant increase in FY24 compared to FY23. What was the total number of IPOs in FY24?

25 / 200

Category: General Awareness

1 points

25. What did the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) decide regarding the policy repo rate in its meeting held from October 7-9, 2024?

26 / 200

Category: General Awareness

1 points

26. What was the size of the Reserve Bank's balance sheet as a percentage of GDP at the end of March 2024?

27 / 200

Category: General Awareness

1 points

27. Following the regulatory increase in risk weights on certain consumer credit segments, what is the estimated decline in the banking system's CRAR and CET1 ratio, respectively, in basis points (bps)?

28 / 200

Category: General Awareness

1 points

28. In a risk scenario where the Indian Rupee (INR) depreciates by 5 per cent over the baseline, what is the estimated impact on domestic inflation and GDP growth?

29 / 200

Category: General Awareness

1 points

29. In September 2025, the Government of India and the Asian Development Bank (ADB) signed a loan agreement of what amount to upgrade urban services in Assam?

30 / 200

Category: General Awareness

1 points

30. In September 2023, RBI issued revised Directions for the classification of investment portfolios of commercial banks. What are the three new principle-based categories introduced?

31 / 200

Category: General Awareness

1 points

31. What was the Monetary Policy Committee's (MPC) stance following its October 2024 meeting?

32 / 200

Category: General Awareness

1 points

32. The revised prudential norms for the investment portfolio of commercial banks, issued on September 12, 2023, introduced several key modifications. Which of the following was NOT one of these modifications?

33 / 200

Category: General Awareness

1 points

33. While gross Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) inflows to India increased by approximately 14 per cent in 2024-25, net FDI inflows saw a significant moderation. Which of the following best explains this divergence?

34 / 200

Category: General Awareness

1 points

34. What was the Gross Non-Performing Assets (GNPA) ratio for Scheduled Commercial Banks as of March 2024, which marked a multi-year low?

35 / 200

Category: General Awareness

1 points

35. As per the revised guidelines for the voluntary transition of Small Finance Banks (SFBs) to Universal Banks, what is the minimum net worth requirement for an eligible SFB?

36 / 200

Category: General Awareness

1 points

36. In September 2024, the union cabinet approved the 'PM E-DRIVE' scheme to promote the electric vehicle ecosystem. What is the financial outlay for this scheme?

37 / 200

Category: General Awareness

1 points

37. According to the risk scenarios considered, what is the potential impact on India's real GDP growth if the Indian Rupee (INR) depreciates by 5 per cent over the baseline?

38 / 200

Category: General Awareness

1 points

38. What was the Compound Annual Growth Rate (CAGR) of bank lending to Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) between June 2021 and June 2023?

39 / 200

Category: General Awareness

1 points

39. In March 2025, India strengthened its global trade and diplomatic ties on two separate fronts. Which of the following statements correctly identifies these two key international developments?

40 / 200

Category: General Awareness

1 points

40. Which of the following statements about the recommendations from the 56th GST Council meeting is INCORRECT?

41 / 200

Category: General Awareness

1 points

41. What was the average retail inflation rate (CPI inflation) in India during FY24?

42 / 200

Category: General Awareness

1 points

42. In December 2024, the Reserve Bank implemented a measure to ease liquidity conditions. What was this measure?

43 / 200

Category: General Awareness

1 points

43. The RBI expanded the retail pilot for the Central Bank Digital Currency (e₹-R) to 13 cities in March 2025 and simultaneously launched a pilot project for offline CBDC transactions in August 2025. This dual-pronged pilot strategy primarily aims to:

44 / 200

Category: General Awareness

1 points

44. What was the percentage growth in the Gross Value Added (GVA) of the manufacturing sector in FY24?

45 / 200

Category: General Awareness

1 points

45. With effect from April 1, 2026, what will be the revised rate of tax on long-term capital gains for Foreign Institutional Investors arising from the transfer of securities (not covered under Section 112A), as per the amendment to Section 115AD?

46 / 200

Category: General Awareness

1 points

46. In the expansion of RBI's balance sheet during FY 2023-24, which asset category witnessed the highest percentage growth?

47 / 200

Category: General Awareness

1 points

47. In a move to attract more capital inflows, the RBI revised the interest rate ceilings on FCNR(B) deposits in December 2024. Which of the following statements regarding this revision is/are correct?
1. The ceiling for deposits with a maturity of 1 year to less than 3 years has been increased to overnight ARR plus 400 bps.
2. The ceiling for deposits with a maturity of 3 to 5 years has been increased to overnight ARR plus 500 bps.
3. The relaxation in interest rate ceilings is available until March 31, 2025.

48 / 200

Category: General Awareness

1 points

48. What is the projection for real GDP growth for the fiscal year 2024-25, as stated in the RBI's December 2024 Monetary Policy Statement?

49 / 200

Category: General Awareness

1 points

49. In March 2025, SEBI introduced a significant regulatory change by mandating quarterly ESG disclosures for which category of listed companies?

50 / 200

Category: General Awareness

1 points

50. While the Reserve Bank transferred a surplus of ₹2.68 lakh crore to the Central Government for FY 2024-25, what was the surplus amount transferred in the previous fiscal year (FY 2023-24)?

51 / 200

Category: General Awareness

1 points

51. What is the projected real GDP growth for the Indian economy for the financial year 2024-25?

52 / 200

Category: General Awareness

1 points

52. What was the Gross Non-Performing Assets (GNPA) ratio of Indian banks as a percentage of total assets at the end of June 2024?

53 / 200

Category: General Awareness

1 points

53. Based on the September 2024 Survey of Professional Forecasters, what is the median projection for the combined gross fiscal deficit as a percentage of GDP for 2024-25?

54 / 200

Category: General Awareness

1 points

54. According to the Systemic Risk Survey (SRS) conducted in November 2024, what percentage of respondents assessed 'better or similar' prospects for the Indian banking sector over a one-year horizon?

55 / 200

Category: General Awareness

1 points

55. What was the magnitude of the change in the repo rate in the February 2025 monetary policy review?

56 / 200

Category: General Awareness

1 points

56. In the first quarter of FY 2024-25, what was the growth rate of Private Final Consumption Expenditure (PFCE), which accelerated to a seven-quarter high?

57 / 200

Category: General Awareness

1 points

57. India's share in global IPO listings saw a significant surge in 2024, making it the leading contributor globally. What was the increase in its share compared to 2023?

58 / 200

Category: General Awareness

1 points

58. For the purposes of the Direct Tax Vivad Se Vishwas Scheme, 2024, what is the 'specified date' on which appeals, petitions, or applications must be pending?

59 / 200

Category: General Awareness

1 points

59. In a significant diplomatic and economic development in September 2025, India signed a Bilateral Investment Agreement (BIA) with which country?

60 / 200

Category: General Awareness

1 points

60. To manage surplus liquidity arising from the return of ₹2000 banknotes, the RBI implemented a temporary Incremental Cash Reserve Ratio (I-CRR). During which period was this measure effective?

61 / 200

Category: General Awareness

1 points

61. In the April 2025 Statement on Developmental and Regulatory Policies, which entity has been proposed to be empowered to revise transaction limits for Person to Merchant (P2M) UPI payments based on evolving user needs?

62 / 200

Category: General Awareness

1 points

62. For the second half of FY 2025-26, the Government of India planned to borrow ₹6.77 lakh crore. What was the amount planned to be raised specifically through Sovereign Green Bonds as part of this borrowing?

63 / 200

Category: General Awareness

1 points

63. What was the growth rate of Private Final Consumption Expenditure (PFCE) in H1 FY25?

64 / 200

Category: General Awareness

1 points

64. What policy repo rate was maintained by the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) of the RBI during its meetings in the first nine months of FY25 (April-December 2024)?

65 / 200

Category: General Awareness

1 points

65. For the financial year 2024-25, what was the average spread of the Weighted Average Call Rate (WACR) over the policy repo rate?

66 / 200

Category: General Awareness

1 points

66. The RBI undertook several key policy actions in early 2025, including reducing the repo rate to 6.25% (Feb), introducing stricter norms for unsecured personal loans (Feb), and increasing deposit insurance coverage to ₹10 lakh (Apr). Which statement best analyzes the combined strategic intent of these actions?

67 / 200

Category: General Awareness

1 points

67. What was the primary reason for the decrease in the Reserve Bank's holdings of domestic securities (Investments-Domestic-BD) from ₹14,06,422.89 crore in 2023 to ₹13,63,368.97 crore in 2024?

68 / 200

Category: General Awareness

1 points

68. As per the risk parameter disclosures for mutual funds for May 2024, what was the range of days required to liquidate 25% of the portfolio for the top 5 smallcap schemes, and what does this imply about their liquidity risk?

69 / 200

Category: General Awareness

1 points

69. Arrange the following sectors in descending order of their share in total FDI equity inflows during H1 of FY25: 1. Computer software and hardware 2. Services Sector 3. Trading 4. Non-conventional energy

70 / 200

Category: General Awareness

1 points

70. According to the IBC data released in August 2025, how many companies have been successfully resolved under the framework as of March 31, 2025?

71 / 200

Category: General Awareness

1 points

71. What was the headline CPI inflation projected for 2025-26, assuming a normal monsoon?

72 / 200

Category: General Awareness

1 points

72. During the monetary policy tightening period from May 2022 to December 2024, the repo rate increased by 250 basis points. In this context, which statement accurately compares the monetary policy transmission to fresh deposits and fresh rupee loans between Public Sector Banks (PSBs) and Private Sector Banks (PVBs)?

73 / 200

Category: General Awareness

1 points

73. What is the applicable income tax rate for a domestic company whose total turnover in the previous year 2022-23 did not exceed four hundred crore rupees?

74 / 200

Category: General Awareness

1 points

74. What was India's Current Account Deficit (CAD) as a percentage of GDP for the fiscal year FY24?

75 / 200

Category: General Awareness

1 points

75. Which of the following statements best describes the performance of India's construction and manufacturing sub-sectors in the post-pandemic recovery up to H1 FY25?

76 / 200

Category: General Awareness

1 points

76. What is the projected real GDP growth for the financial year 2025-26 as per the August 2025 Monetary Policy Statement?

77 / 200

Category: General Awareness

1 points

77. The Finance Bill 2024 amends the tax rate on short-term capital gains under Section 111A. What is the new tax rate for transfers taking place on or after July 23, 2024?

78 / 200

Category: General Awareness

1 points

78. The Reserve Bank’s balance sheet size increased to 24.1 per cent of GDP at the end of March 2024. What was its size as a percentage of GDP at the end of the previous year, March 2023?

79 / 200

Category: General Awareness

1 points

79. During 2023-24, liquidity conditions tightened, causing the average daily net absorption under the Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF) to moderate significantly. What was the average daily net absorption figure for 2023-24?

80 / 200

Category: General Awareness

1 points

80. In Q1:2024-25, which major component of aggregate demand recorded a year-on-year contraction?

81 / 200

Category: English Language

1 points

1. The Banking Regulation Act of 1949 is a cornerstone of the Indian banking system, providing the legal framework for the regulation and supervision of banks. It empowers the Reserve Bank of India with extensive powers to oversee banking operations, license new banks, and conduct inspections. Amendments to the Act over the years have strengthened regulatory oversight and introduced measures to address emerging challenges such as non-performing assets. The Act aims to ensure the stability and soundness of the banking system, protect depositors' interests, and promote financial stability. Compliance with the Banking Regulation Act is essential for all banks operating in India.

What is the primary purpose of the Banking Regulation Act of 1949?

82 / 200

Category: English Language

1 points

2. (A) RBI's new guidelines aims / (B) to enhance transparency and accountability / (C) in the functioning of / (D) non-banking financial companies.

83 / 200

Category: English Language

1 points

3. Choose the word CLOSEST in meaning to the word 'AMELIORATE' as used in the given sentence.

The government introduced new fiscal policies designed to **ameliorate** the economic hardship faced by low-income households.

84 / 200

Category: English Language

1 points

4. Financial inclusion is a critical aspect of economic development, aiming to provide access to affordable financial services to all segments of society, especially the underserved and vulnerable. Digital banking has emerged as a powerful tool for promoting financial inclusion, offering convenient and cost-effective ways to reach remote areas and lower-income populations. Initiatives like Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana have played a significant role in expanding access to banking services. However, challenges remain, including low financial literacy, lack of internet access in some regions, and concerns about cybersecurity. Overcoming these hurdles is essential to fully realize the potential of digital banking in furthering financial inclusion and promoting inclusive growth.

What is identified as a major challenge to financial inclusion?

85 / 200

Category: English Language

1 points

5. The proliferation of fintech companies have created both opportunities and challenges for traditional banks, forcing them to innovate and adapting to changing customer preferences.

86 / 200

Category: English Language

1 points

6. Basel III is an international regulatory framework designed to strengthen the resilience of the banking system by enhancing capital adequacy, liquidity, and risk management. It addresses the shortcomings identified during the 2008 financial crisis. The framework introduces stricter capital requirements, including higher minimum capital ratios and a capital conservation buffer. It also establishes liquidity standards, such as the Liquidity Coverage Ratio and the Net Stable Funding Ratio, to ensure that banks have sufficient liquid assets to meet short-term and long-term funding needs. Implementation of Basel III has been phased in over several years, and it continues to shape banking regulations globally.

According to the passage, what is the purpose of Basel III?

87 / 200

Category: English Language

1 points

7. (A) The central bank's recent announcement / (B) regarding a marginal adjustment in the cash reserve ratio / (C), along with its cautious outlook on inflation, / (D) have significantly influenced market sentiment.

88 / 200

Category: English Language

1 points

8. International banking and finance involve the flow of capital, goods, and services across national borders. This includes activities such as foreign direct investment, international trade, and currency exchange. Multinational corporations play a significant role in international banking and finance by investing in foreign countries and engaging in cross-border transactions. The global financial system is interconnected, and events in one country can have ripple effects on other countries. International financial institutions such as the International Monetary Fund, IMF, and the World Bank play a crucial role in promoting global financial stability and economic development. Fluctuations in exchange rates and interest rates can significantly impact international trade and investment flows.

According to the passage, what role do international financial institutions like the IMF play?

89 / 200

Category: English Language

1 points

9. The Consumer Price Index (CPI) is a widely used measure of inflation that tracks the average change in prices paid by urban consumers for a basket of goods and services. It is used to monitor inflation trends and adjust wages, salaries, and government benefits. The CPI is calculated by collecting data on the prices of various items, weighting them according to their importance in the average consumer's budget, and then computing the percentage change in the weighted average price over time. Changes in the CPI can have a significant impact on the economy, influencing interest rates, investment decisions, and consumer spending.

What does the CPI measure, according to the passage?

90 / 200

Category: English Language

1 points

10. The global financial crisis of 2008 highlighted the interconnectedness of financial markets and the importance of robust risk management practices. The crisis originated in the United States with the collapse of the subprime mortgage market and quickly spread to other countries, causing widespread economic disruption. Banks experienced significant losses, credit markets froze, and many businesses faced bankruptcy. Governments and central banks intervened with massive bailouts and monetary easing measures to stabilize the financial system. The crisis led to increased regulation of the financial industry and a greater focus on preventing future crises. International cooperation is essential for addressing systemic risks and promoting global financial stability.

What was a key factor that contributed to the global financial crisis of 2008?

91 / 200

Category: English Language

1 points

11. Microfinance institutions play a crucial role in providing financial services to low-income individuals and small businesses, particularly in rural areas. These institutions offer small loans, savings accounts, and other financial products that are often inaccessible through traditional banks. While microfinance has been successful in empowering many people, it also faces challenges such as high interest rates, over-indebtedness, and regulatory oversight. Ensuring the sustainability and ethical practices of microfinance institutions is essential to maximize their positive impact and minimize potential risks. Furthermore, promoting financial literacy among borrowers is crucial to enable them to make informed decisions and manage their finances effectively.

What is a significant challenge faced by microfinance institutions, as mentioned in the passage?

92 / 200

Category: English Language

1 points

12. The Reserve Bank of India employs various instruments to manage inflation, primarily through its monetary policy. The repo rate, the rate at which commercial banks borrow money from the RBI, is a key tool. Increasing the repo rate makes borrowing more expensive, reducing the money supply and curbing demand-pull inflation. Conversely, decreasing the repo rate encourages borrowing, increasing the money supply and potentially stimulating economic growth. The cash reserve ratio, the percentage of deposits banks must hold with the RBI, also plays a role. A higher CRR reduces the amount of money banks can lend, while a lower CRR increases their lending capacity. Open market operations, involving the buying and selling of government securities, are another important instrument. Buying securities injects liquidity into the market, while selling securities withdraws liquidity. Effective inflation management requires a delicate balance to avoid stifling economic growth.

What is the primary objective of the RBI when adjusting the repo rate?

93 / 200

Category: English Language

1 points

13. To enhance operational efficiency and customer experience, the bank decided to ______ the process of opening new savings accounts through a fully digital KYC mechanism.

94 / 200

Category: English Language

1 points

14. (A) Despite the sustained efforts by the RBI / (B) to stabilize the currency in recent months, / (C) the market volatility has been persisted / (D) due to external economic pressures.

95 / 200

Category: English Language

1 points

15. Choose the word CLOSEST in meaning to the word 'PERVASIVE' as used in the given sentence.

The **pervasive** influence of digital transformation is reshaping traditional banking operations globally.

96 / 200

Category: English Language

1 points

16. Choose the word OPPOSITE in meaning to the word 'STRINGENT' as used in the given sentence.

To prevent financial crises, regulatory bodies have imposed **stringent** capital requirements on banks.

97 / 200

Category: English Language

1 points

17. The Reserve Bank of India, RBI, plays a crucial role in managing inflation through its monetary policy. The primary tool used is the manipulation of the repo rate, the rate at which commercial banks borrow money from the RBI. When inflation rises, the RBI typically increases the repo rate. This makes borrowing more expensive for banks, which in turn increases lending rates for businesses and consumers. Consequently, demand decreases, leading to a cooling down of prices. However, this approach can also slow down economic growth. The RBI must carefully balance controlling inflation with supporting economic expansion to maintain overall financial stability. Factors such as global commodity prices and monsoon patterns also influence inflation, making the RBI's task complex and multifaceted. Understanding these dynamics is vital for effective monetary policy implementation.

What is the most likely consequence of the RBI increasing the repo rate?

98 / 200

Category: English Language

1 points

18. Financial inclusion aims to extend banking services to the unbanked and underbanked populations. This involves providing access to basic banking accounts, credit, insurance, and other financial products at an affordable cost. Initiatives like the Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana have significantly increased the number of bank accounts, but ensuring their active usage remains a challenge. Digital banking channels, such as mobile banking and internet banking, are playing a crucial role in expanding financial inclusion, particularly in remote areas. However, digital literacy and internet access are essential prerequisites. Furthermore, addressing issues like cybersecurity and fraud prevention is vital to maintain trust in digital financial services. The ultimate goal is to empower individuals and communities by enabling them to participate more fully in the formal financial system.

According to the passage, what is a significant challenge in achieving effective financial inclusion despite the increase in bank accounts?

99 / 200

Category: English Language

1 points

19. The Indian banking system has undergone significant reforms in recent decades. These reforms aimed to improve the efficiency, stability, and competitiveness of the banking sector. Key reforms include the introduction of stricter capital adequacy norms, the strengthening of regulatory oversight, and the promotion of competition among banks. The implementation of Basel III norms has enhanced the resilience of banks to financial shocks. Furthermore, the adoption of technology has transformed the banking landscape, with the rise of digital banking and fintech companies. However, challenges such as rising non-performing assets and the need for further consolidation remain.

What is one of the main goals of the reforms in the Indian banking system according to the passage?

100 / 200

Category: English Language

1 points

20. Choose the word CLOSEST in meaning to the word 'OBFUSCATE' as used in the given sentence.

The central bank's communication strategy should aim for transparency rather than attempting to **obfuscate** the true state of inflation.

101 / 200

Category: English Language

1 points

21. Economic indicators provide valuable insights into the health and performance of an economy. Key indicators include gross domestic product, GDP, inflation rate, unemployment rate, and interest rates. GDP measures the total value of goods and services produced in a country. A high GDP growth rate indicates a strong and expanding economy. The inflation rate measures the rate at which prices are rising. High inflation can erode purchasing power and destabilize the economy. The unemployment rate measures the percentage of the labor force that is unemployed. High unemployment can lead to social and economic problems. Central banks use these indicators to make informed decisions about monetary policy.

According to the passage, what does a high GDP growth rate indicate?

102 / 200

Category: English Language

1 points

22. (A) Financial institutions are now mandated / (B) to strictly adhere with the new cybersecurity protocols / (C) stipulated by regulatory bodies / (D) to safeguard customer data.

103 / 200

Category: English Language

1 points

23. Rearrange the following sentences to form a coherent paragraph. Sentence 1 is fixed: A. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) uses various instruments to manage liquidity in the banking system.

104 / 200

Category: English Language

1 points

24. Basel III is a comprehensive set of reform measures, developed by the Basel Committee on Banking Supervision, to strengthen the regulation, supervision, and risk management of banks. It aims to improve the banking sector's ability to absorb shocks arising from financial stress, improve risk management and governance, and strengthen banks' transparency and disclosures. Key elements of Basel III include higher minimum capital requirements, stricter liquidity standards, and measures to reduce procyclicality. The implementation of Basel III has been phased in over several years and has had a significant impact on the global banking landscape. While it has enhanced the stability of the banking system, it has also increased compliance costs for banks and may have contributed to a slight reduction in lending activity.

What is the primary goal of Basel III, as described in the passage?

105 / 200

Category: English Language

1 points

25. Government schemes play a vital role in addressing various socio-economic challenges in India. These schemes aim to improve the living standards of citizens, promote economic growth, and reduce inequality. Some of the key schemes include the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, MGNREGA, which provides employment to rural households, the Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana, PMAY, which aims to provide affordable housing, and the Ayushman Bharat scheme, which provides health insurance coverage. The success of these schemes depends on effective implementation, adequate funding, and proper monitoring. Challenges such as corruption and leakages can hinder their effectiveness.

What is the primary goal of the Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (PMAY) as mentioned in the passage?

106 / 200

Category: English Language

1 points

26. Non-Performing Assets, NPAs, pose a significant challenge to the Indian banking sector. These are loans where borrowers have stopped making interest or principal payments for a specified period. High levels of NPAs erode bank profitability, reduce lending capacity, and can threaten financial stability. Several factors contribute to the accumulation of NPAs, including economic slowdowns, project delays, and willful loan defaults. The Reserve Bank of India has implemented various measures to address the NPA problem, such as asset quality reviews and restructuring schemes. Effective management of NPAs is crucial for maintaining the health and resilience of the banking system.

What is the primary consequence of high levels of Non-Performing Assets for banks?

107 / 200

Category: English Language

1 points

27. (A) The monetary policy committee emphasized / (B) that central banks across the globe / (C) must maintain its independence / (D) from political interference to ensure effective governance.

108 / 200

Category: English Language

1 points

28. Choose the word OPPOSITE in meaning to the word 'SANGUINE' as used in the given sentence.

Despite the recent market volatility, the analyst remained **sanguine** about the long-term prospects of the banking sector.

109 / 200

Category: English Language

1 points

29. The bank's profits were _________ by the unexpected surge in non-performing assets.

110 / 200

Category: English Language

1 points

30. The concept of moral suasion is often employed by central banks, including the Reserve Bank of India, as a tool to influence the behavior of commercial banks. It involves the central bank using persuasive techniques, rather than formal regulations, to encourage banks to comply with its policy objectives. This might include public statements, private meetings, or informal guidance. Moral suasion is most effective when the central bank has a strong reputation and a good relationship with the commercial banks. However, its effectiveness can be limited if banks have conflicting incentives or if the central bank lacks credibility. It is a subtle tool and its impact is often difficult to quantify.

What is the central idea behind the use of moral suasion by central banks?

111 / 200

Category: Arithmetic

1 points

1. A train travels at a speed of 90 km/hr and covers a distance in 4 hours. What is the total distance covered by the train?

112 / 200

Category: Arithmetic

1 points

2. A bus covers a certain distance at a speed of 60 km/h in 5 hours. If the speed is increased by 20 km/h, how much time will it take to cover the same distance?

113 / 200

Category: Arithmetic

1 points

3. A sum of Rs. 5000 is deposited in a bank at an annual simple interest rate of 8%. What will be the interest earned after 3 years?

114 / 200

Category: Arithmetic

1 points

4. If the ages of A and B are in the ratio 5:6 and the sum of their ages is 66 years, what is the age of A?

115 / 200

Category: Arithmetic

1 points

5. Find the principal if the simple interest earned in 4 years at an annual rate of 5% is Rs. 2,000.

116 / 200

Category: Arithmetic

1 points

6. A product's price was increased by 10% and then decreased by 10%. What is the net percentage change in the price?

117 / 200

Category: Arithmetic

1 points

7. Find the fourth proportional to 2, 3, and 6.

118 / 200

Category: Arithmetic

1 points

8. A boat can travel at 15 km/hr in still water. If the speed of the stream is 3 km/hr, how long will it take the boat to travel 36 km downstream?

119 / 200

Category: Arithmetic

1 points

9. A sum of ₹10,500 is divided among P, Q, and R in the ratio 6:7:8. What is the share of Q?

120 / 200

Category: Arithmetic

1 points

10. A trader marks up the price of an item by 40% above the cost price and then offers a discount of 10% on the marked price. What is the percentage profit or loss?

121 / 200

Category: Arithmetic

1 points

11. The average of a set of 7 consecutive numbers is 20. What is the largest number in this set?

122 / 200

Category: Arithmetic

1 points

12. An item's price is reduced by 25% to ₹1,500. What was the original price of the item?

123 / 200

Category: Arithmetic

1 points

13. A trader marks his goods at 30% above the cost price. If he offers a discount of 15% on the marked price, what is his overall profit percentage?

124 / 200

Category: Arithmetic

1 points

14. A man rows to a place 48 km distant and back in 14 hours. He finds that he can row 4 km with the stream in the same time as 3 km against the stream. Find the speed of the stream.

125 / 200

Category: Arithmetic

1 points

15. In a survey, 40% of respondents preferred product A, while 60% preferred product B. If 500 people were surveyed, how many more people preferred product B than product A?

126 / 200

Category: Data Interpretation

1 points

1. What is the revenue generated by the Accessories category?

127 / 200

Category: Data Interpretation

1 points

2. What percentage of the total revenue does the Tablets category contribute?

128 / 200

Category: Data Interpretation

1 points

3. Which category generated the highest revenue?

129 / 200

Category: Data Interpretation

1 points

4. What is the difference in revenue between Laptops and Others?

130 / 200

Category: Data Interpretation

1 points

5. If the total revenue increased by 10% next year, what would be the new revenue for the Smartphones category?

131 / 200

Category: Data Interpretation

1 points

6. What is the exact population of Youth in Metro City?

132 / 200

Category: Data Interpretation

1 points

7. What is the ratio of Adults to Children?

133 / 200

Category: Data Interpretation

1 points

8. What percentage of the total population is either Seniors or Elderly?

134 / 200

Category: Data Interpretation

1 points

9. By how much does the Adult population exceed the combined population of Seniors and Elderly?

135 / 200

Category: Data Interpretation

1 points

10. If the total population increases by 10%, what will be the new population of the Elderly?

136 / 200

Category: Data Interpretation

1 points

11. What is the average monthly production of Product X over the period?

137 / 200

Category: Data Interpretation

1 points

12. By what percentage did the production of Product Y increase from January to June?

138 / 200

Category: Data Interpretation

1 points

13. In which month was the difference in production between Product X and Product Y the greatest?

139 / 200

Category: Data Interpretation

1 points

14. Based on the chart, what is the approximate ratio of the total production of Product X to the total production of Product Y over the entire six-month period?

140 / 200

Category: Data Interpretation

1 points

15. If the production cost per unit for Product X is ₹10 and for Product Y is ₹15, what is the total production cost in May?

141 / 200

Category: Reasoning

1 points

1. Premises:
1. All managers are employees.
2. Some employees are not happy.
3. Some happy people are not managers.
Conclusions:
I. Some managers are not happy.
II. Some managers are happy.
III. All happy people are employees.
IV. Some non-managers are happy.
Which conclusion(s) logically follow?

142 / 200

Category: Reasoning

1 points

2. A person starts at a point, walks 20 meters East, turns left and walks 30 meters, turns right and walks 40 meters, turns right again and walks 30 meters. What is the shortest distance back to the starting point?

143 / 200

Category: Reasoning

1 points

3. A company claims that their newly developed app will significantly reduce water wastage by alerting users to leaks and excessive usage. Which of the following, if true, most strengthens the argument?

144 / 200

Category: Reasoning

1 points

4. Statement: The city has experienced a series of flash floods due to inadequate drainage systems, causing damage to property and disruptions in daily life.

Courses of Action:
I. Upgrade the city's drainage infrastructure to better handle heavy rainfall.
II. Implement an early warning system to alert residents of incoming floods.

145 / 200

Category: Reasoning

1 points

5. In a certain code, 'HELLO' is coded as 'JGNNQ' and 'WORLD' is coded as 'YQTNF'. How is 'LOGIC' coded in that code?

146 / 200

Category: Reasoning

1 points

6. Five friends, Anna, Ben, Clara, Dan, and Eva live in a building with five floors. Each person lives on a different floor (1 to 5) and has a favorite color (Red, Blue, Green, Yellow, and Purple). Ben lives above Clara. The person who likes Yellow lives on the lowest floor. Anna's floor is directly above the person who likes Purple. Eva lives on the second floor. Dan lives on the topmost floor. Who lives on the third floor?

147 / 200

Category: Reasoning

1 points

7. Seven people - L, M, N, O, P, Q, and R are sitting around a circular table. Who is sitting to the immediate left of P?

Conditions:
1. L sits second to the right of N.
2. M is an immediate neighbor of L.
3. O sits third to the left of Q.
4. R is not an immediate neighbor of Q.
5. P sits directly opposite to N.

148 / 200

Category: Reasoning

1 points

8. Five friends (Amy, Ben, Cara, Dan, and Eva) decided to meet once during the weekdays (Monday to Friday). Each one meets on a different day. The conditions are as follows: 1) Ben meets before Dan. 2) Cara meets two days after Amy. 3) Eva meets on Wednesday. On which day does Dan meet?

149 / 200

Category: Reasoning

1 points

9. Five friends, Anna, Brian, Charles, Diana, and Edward, are sitting in a row facing north. Brian is sitting immediately to the left of Charles. Diana is at one of the ends. Anna is sitting immediately to the right of Edward. Who is sitting in the middle?

150 / 200

Category: Reasoning

1 points

10. Ten friends, Anna, Barry, Carla, David, Emma, Frank, Gina, Helen, Ivy, and Jack, each own a different type of vehicle (Sedan, Coupe, Hatchback, SUV, Truck, Convertible, Minivan, Motorcycle, Bicycle, and Van) and live on a different street named after a city (New York, Los Angeles, Chicago, Houston, Phoenix, Philadelphia, San Antonio, San Diego, Dallas, and San Jose). Each person's favorite sport is different: Basketball, Football, Tennis, Cricket, Baseball, Swimming, Golf, Hockey, Soccer, and Rugby. Conditions: 1. Anna lives on New York street and owns a Sedan. 2. The owner of the Truck lives on Chicago street and does not like Cricket. 3. The person who likes Soccer lives on Houston street and owns a Minivan. 4. Emma, who likes Basketball, lives in Philadelphia but does not own a Motorcycle. 5. Gina lives on San Diego street and owns a Coupe. 6. The person who owns the Hatchback likes Golf and lives on Los Angeles street. 7. The resident of San Jose street likes Tennis. 8. Barry lives on San Antonio street and does not own a Convertible. 9. Frank, who likes Baseball, lives on Dallas street but not in a Van. 10. Jack enjoys Hockey and lives in Phoenix. Who lives on San Jose street, what vehicle do they own, and what is their favorite sport?

151 / 200

Category: Reasoning

1 points

11. Six people J, K, L, M, N, and O are sitting in a single row facing north. K is sitting third to the left of N. L is not sitting adjacent to N. M is sitting at one end and is not adjacent to K. J is sitting to the immediate right of O. Who is sitting at the other end?

152 / 200

Category: Reasoning

1 points

12. In a certain code language, 'BUTTERFLY' is written as 'CVUUFSFMAZ' and 'BEAUTIFUL' is written as 'CFBVUJGMVM'. How is 'GRACEFUL' written in that code?

153 / 200

Category: Reasoning

1 points

13. Seven friends - Gary, Helen, Irene, James, Kevin, Lisa, and Mona - visit a library on different days of the same week, starting from Monday to Sunday. Each of them also reads a unique book: A, B, C, D, E, F, and G. Consider the following conditions:
1. Gary visits before Mona but after Lisa.
2. Kevin visits on Wednesday.
3. The person who reads book D visits on Friday.
4. Irene visits the day before the person who reads book C.
5. Helen visits after the person who reads book F.
6. James reads book B.
7. The person who visits on Sunday reads book G.
Who reads book A?

154 / 200

Category: Reasoning

1 points

14. Six boxes are arranged in a vertical stack. Each box contains a different fruit: Apple, Banana, Cherry, Date, Grape, and Kiwi. The following conditions apply:
1. The Banana box is immediately above the Cherry box.
2. The Apple box is in position 3.
3. The Date box is below the Cherry box.
4. The Kiwi box is not at the top position.
5. The Grape box is immediately below the Date box.
Which box is in the top position?

155 / 200

Category: Reasoning

1 points

15. Premises:
1. Some birds are pigeons.
2. No pigeons are mammals.
Conclusions:
I. Some birds are not mammals.
II. All birds are mammals.
Which conclusion(s) logically follow?

156 / 200

Category: Reasoning

1 points

16. In a certain code language, 'GARDEN' is coded as 'QHGUDA' and 'HOUSE' is coded as 'HVXRK'. How is 'PLANT' coded in that language?

157 / 200

Category: Reasoning

1 points

17. In a 10-floor building numbered 1 to 10 from bottom to top, ten different people live: J, K, L, M, N, O, P, Q, R, and S. The following conditions apply: 1) K lives on the fifth floor. 2) P lives on an odd-numbered floor above M. 3) O lives immediately below L. 4) N lives above J. 5) R lives on the eighth floor. 6) Q and S are not adjacent. 7) J lives three floors below S, who lives on an even-numbered floor. Who lives on the second floor?

158 / 200

Category: Reasoning

1 points

18. In a 9-floor building numbered 1 to 9 from bottom to top, nine friends live on different floors. The following conditions are given: 1) L is on an odd-numbered floor below M. 2) N lives three floors above O. 3) P lives between L and O. 4) Q lives on an even-numbered floor above R. 5) There are two floors between N and R. 6) S lives on a floor above T and next to Q. Which floor does R live on?

159 / 200

Category: Reasoning

1 points

19. Eight employees (P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W) must each conduct a training session over eight consecutive days, starting from 1st October to 8th October. The conditions are: 1) P's session is 3 days after Q's. 2) R conducts his session immediately after S. 3) T and U conduct their sessions on consecutive days, with T ahead of U. 4) V's session is on 5th October. 5) W's session is 2 days after P's. On which day does S conduct his session?

160 / 200

Category: Reasoning

1 points

20. Ten tasks labeled A to J need to be completed over five weeks, with each week having two tasks. The conditions are: 1) Task A is completed in the first week. 2) Task B is completed in the last week. 3) There is a one-week gap between tasks C and D. 4) Task E is completed before tasks F and G but after task H. 5) Task J is completed in the same week as task F. In which week is task C completed?

161 / 200

Category: Reasoning

1 points

21. Ten students, P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W, X, and Y, are participating in a quiz contest held on different days in two weeks (Monday to Friday). Each student participates on one unique day, and no quiz is held on weekends. The conditions are as follows:
1. P participates earlier than R.
2. V is on Monday of the second week.
3. S is scheduled two days after T.
4. U and W have consecutive day slots.
5. Y's quiz is not on a Friday.
6. Q is scheduled before both P and Y.
7. X is scheduled on Thursday of the first week.

162 / 200

Category: Reasoning

1 points

22. Statement: A study found that students who study late at night score higher in exams than those who study early in the morning. However, this study only considered students from a single university and did not account for differences in subject matter difficulty or individual student habits.

Which of the following inference(s) can be definitely drawn from the above statement?

I. Studying late at night is more effective for academic performance than studying in the morning.
II. The results of the study cannot be generalized to all students.
III. Factors other than study time could influence academic performance.

163 / 200

Category: Reasoning

1 points

23. Pointing to a man, S says, 'He is the son of my mother's only brother.' How is the man related to S?

164 / 200

Category: Reasoning

1 points

24. Six colleagues are sitting around a round table discussing a project. Each of them comes from a different department (HR, Sales, IT, Finance, Marketing, R&D) and prefers a different snack (Cookies, Sandwich, Pizza, Salad, Fruit, Chips). The following clues are given: 1. The person from HR is sitting to the immediate left of the person who likes Pizza. 2. The person who likes Chips is from Finance and sits directly opposite to the one who prefers Sandwich. 3. The IT professional sits to the right of the person who likes Salad. 4. The Marketing person is not sitting next to the one who prefers Fruit. 5. The R&D person is sitting between the IT and HR persons. Who sits to the right of the person from Sales?

165 / 200

Category: Reasoning

1 points

25. Premises:
1. All students are people.
2. No people are immortal.
Conclusions:
I. No students are immortal.
II. Some students are not immortal.
Which conclusion(s) logically follow?

166 / 200

Category: Reasoning

1 points

26. There are seven floors in a building numbered 1 to 7. Each floor is occupied by one of the seven friends: P, Q, R, S, T, U, and V. The following conditions apply:
1. P lives on the fifth floor.
2. T lives on an even-numbered floor below P.
3. There is one floor between Q and R, with Q living above R.
4. S lives immediately below V.
5. U lives two floors above T.
Which floor does Q live on?

167 / 200

Category: Reasoning

1 points

27. Statement: A manufacturing company is experiencing a high rate of employee turnover, which is affecting its production schedules.

Courses of Action:
I. Conduct exit interviews to understand the reasons for employees leaving and implement necessary changes.
II. Offer higher salaries to employees to retain them.

168 / 200

Category: Reasoning

1 points

28. Ten individuals J, K, L, M, N, O, P, Q, R, and S are sitting around a circular table. Who sits two places to the right of N?nn1. P is opposite L, who is facing the center.n2. S sits second to the right of Q, who faces outside.n3. K is to the immediate left of N and faces the center.n4. J sits opposite M.n5. R and S are immediate neighbors and face opposite directions.n6. O sits between L and R.n7. N is not a neighbor of L.

169 / 200

Category: Reasoning

1 points

29. John walks 10 meters North, then 5 meters East. What is the final direction of John from the starting point?

170 / 200

Category: Reasoning

1 points

30. A building has eight floors and eight different items placed one on each floor: Bicycle, Kite, Laptop, Mobile, Notebook, Pen, Book, and Tablet. The conditions are:
1. The Kite is on the third floor.
2. The Tablet is two floors above the Bicycle.
3. The Pen is neither on an odd-numbered floor nor adjacent to the Laptop.
4. The Mobile is on a floor below the Notebook and above the Book.
5. The Tablet is not on the topmost floor.
6. The Book is on the first floor.
What item is placed on the fifth floor?

171 / 200

Category: Reasoning

1 points

31. Input: apple 5 banana 2 cherry 10 date 8

Step I: apple banana 5 2 cherry date 10 8
Step II: apple banana cherry 5 2 date 10 8
Step III: apple banana cherry date 5 2 10 8
Step IV: 2 apple banana cherry date 5 10 8
Step V: 2 5 apple banana cherry date 10 8

Question: What will be the position of 'date' in Step VI?

172 / 200

Category: Reasoning

1 points

32. Rina walks 30 meters North, then 40 meters in the direction 45° East of North. She then turns 90° clockwise and walks 50 meters. How far is she from the starting point?

173 / 200

Category: Reasoning

1 points

33. Statement: A company has been receiving numerous customer complaints about delays in product delivery, which is affecting its reputation and customer satisfaction.

Courses of Action:
I. The company should hire additional staff in the logistics department to handle increased demand.
II. Implement a comprehensive software system to better track and manage delivery schedules.

174 / 200

Category: Reasoning

1 points

34. Six friends A, B, C, D, E, and F are sitting around a circular table facing the center. 1) A sits second to the right of B. 2) C is an immediate neighbor of B. 3) D sits third to the right of C. 4) E is not an immediate neighbor of A. Who sits immediately to the left of E?

175 / 200

Category: Reasoning

1 points

35. Statement: The government has decided to construct more parks in urban areas to improve air quality.

Assumptions:
I. Urban areas currently have poor air quality.
II. Parks contribute to improving air quality.

176 / 200

Category: Reasoning

1 points

36. Seven people P, Q, R, S, T, U, and V are sitting in a row facing north. S is fourth to the left of V. T is third to the right of R. Q is not at any of the ends. P is sitting immediately next to V. Who is sitting at the second position from the left?

177 / 200

Category: Reasoning

1 points

37. Nine people M, N, O, P, Q, R, S, T, and U are sitting in a single row facing north. N is sitting second to the right of Q, who is sitting at an end. S is sitting second to the left of P and third to the right of R. T is not sitting adjacent to M. U is sitting fourth to the left of O. If P is second to the right of U, who is sitting between S and Q?

178 / 200

Category: Reasoning

1 points

38. In a certain code, 'FLOWER' is coded as 'DKUVIQ' and 'GARDEN' is coded as 'FEQCIM'. How would 'BOTTLE' be coded?

179 / 200

Category: Reasoning

1 points

39. A recent study claims that students who study in short, regular intervals retain more information than those who study in longer, infrequent sessions. Which of the following, if true, most strengthens the argument?

180 / 200

Category: Reasoning

1 points

40. Eight family members are attending a family dinner. Each person is from a different generation and has a different favorite dish (Pasta, Sushi, Steak, Tacos, Curry, Burger, Pizza, Salad). Additionally, each family member arrived at a different time (3 PM, 3:30 PM, 4 PM, 4:30 PM, 5 PM, 5:30 PM, 6 PM, 6:30 PM). The following facts are known: 1. The person who loves Sushi arrived immediately before the person who loves Tacos. 2. The youngest member who arrived at 5:30 PM loves Pizza. 3. The oldest member arrived at 3 PM and loves Pasta. 4. The person who arrived at 4 PM loves Burger. 5. The person who arrived at 6 PM is not the one who loves Salad. 6. The person who loves Steak arrived directly after the Curry lover. 7. The person who loves Salad arrived before 6 PM. Who loves the Salad?

181 / 200

Category: Reasoning

1 points

41. Is the product of two integers, a and b, positive?

Statement I: a^2 is positive.
Statement II: b is positive.

182 / 200

Category: Reasoning

1 points

42. Seven boxes numbered 1 to 7 are arranged vertically with different colors and weights. The boxes contain Red, Blue, Green, Yellow, White, Black, and Pink colors. Each box is either Light or Heavy. The following conditions apply:
1. The Green box is immediately above the Heavy Pink box.
2. The Yellow box is between two Light boxes.
3. The Blue box, which is Heavy, is not adjacent to the Red box.
4. The White box is immediately below the Light Yellow box.
5. The Black box is at the top and is Light.
6. Exactly two boxes separate the Red and Pink boxes.

What is the color of the box at position 5?

183 / 200

Category: Reasoning

1 points

43. Statement: The local government has noticed a significant increase in traffic congestion in the city center during peak hours, causing inconvenience to commuters and impacting businesses.

Courses of Action:
I. Implement a congestion charge for vehicles entering the city center during peak hours.
II. Increase public transportation frequency and capacity to reduce the number of private vehicles on the road.

184 / 200

Category: Reasoning

1 points

44. In a two-week schedule, 10 projects labeled A through J are planned, with each project starting on a distinct day. Each project lasts exactly one day. The two weeks start on a Monday. The following rules must be followed:
1. Project A starts on the first Monday.
2. Project B starts after Project D, but not on the same week as Project A.
3. Project E starts on the day after Project F.
4. Project G starts two days before Project H, which starts two days before Project I.
5. Project J starts after Project C but on a Tuesday.
Which day does Project G start?

185 / 200

Category: Reasoning

1 points

45. A government report claims that raising the minimum wage will lead to an overall increase in consumer spending, thereby boosting the economy. This conclusion is based on data showing higher income workers tend to spend more. Critics argue that the increase could lead to job losses. Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the government's argument?

186 / 200

Category: Reasoning

1 points

46. Statement: The government has announced a new program to provide free meals to all school children.

Assumptions:
I. The government believes that providing meals will improve school attendance.
II. The government has the necessary resources to implement the program.

187 / 200

Category: Reasoning

1 points

47. What is the value of y, if y is an integer?

Statement I: y^2 = 9
Statement II: y > 0

188 / 200

Category: Reasoning

1 points

48. A recent study found that children who play musical instruments tend to perform better in mathematics. The researchers conclude that learning a musical instrument enhances cognitive skills that improve mathematical ability.

Which of the following, if true, most strengthens the argument?

189 / 200

Category: Reasoning

1 points

49. Statement: A university has reported a sharp decline in student enrollment for science courses despite having state-of-the-art facilities.

Courses of Action:
I. The university should launch a marketing campaign highlighting its facilities and the potential career opportunities in science.
II. The university should consult current students and faculty to identify the reasons for declining interest in science courses.
III. The university should offer scholarships to attract more students to enroll in science courses.

190 / 200

Category: Reasoning

1 points

50. A is the father of B. B is the sister of C. How is A related to C?

191 / 200

Category: Reasoning

1 points

51. Statement: The city of Greenvale has been facing water shortages due to a prolonged drought. Reservoirs are at critically low levels, and local agriculture is severely affected.

Courses of Action:
I. The city should implement water rationing for households and industries to manage the remaining water resources.
II. The government should provide subsidies to farmers to implement water-efficient irrigation systems.

192 / 200

Category: Reasoning

1 points

52. A tech company claims that implementing a four-day work week has increased productivity among its employees. They argue that this schedule leads to better work-life balance and less burnout.

Which of the following, if true, most weakens the argument?

193 / 200

Category: Reasoning

1 points

53. Ten people A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I, and J are sitting in two parallel rows. In Row 1, facing south are A, B, C, D, and E. In Row 2, facing north are F, G, H, I, and J. C is directly opposite to I and two places to the left of A. G is the immediate neighbor of F who is at one of the ends. D is not opposite to any of H, G, or F. E is directly opposite to J. Who is sitting to the immediate left of D?

194 / 200

Category: Reasoning

1 points

54. Nine people A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, and I are sitting in a circle, facing either center or outside. 1) B sits second to the left of C, who faces the center. 2) E is an immediate neighbor of both B and D. 3) G sits third to the left of E, facing the same direction as E. 4) H is not an immediate neighbor of G or C. 5) A sits third to the right of I, who faces the center. 6) F is second to the left of H. Who sits to the immediate right of A?

195 / 200

Category: Reasoning

1 points

55. Statement: A recent study indicates that individuals who exercise at least 30 minutes a day are less likely to develop chronic illnesses compared to those who do not engage in regular physical activity. Which of the following inference(s) can be definitely drawn from the above statement? I. Exercising for 30 minutes daily prevents all chronic illnesses. II. Not exercising regularly may increase the risk of chronic illnesses. III. Regular physical activity is beneficial for health.

196 / 200

Category: Reasoning

1 points

56. Six friends P, Q, R, S, T, and U are sitting in a straight line facing north. S sits at one of the extreme ends. Only two people sit between S and P. Q sits to the immediate right of P. R sits somewhere to the left of P. Who is sitting third from the left end?

197 / 200

Category: Reasoning

1 points

57. Premises:
1. Some books are novels.
2. All novels are stories.
3. No story is a fiction.
Conclusions:
I. Some books are not fictions.
II. No novel is a fiction.
III. All stories are books.
IV. Some stories are books.
V. Some books are stories.

Which conclusion(s) logically follow?

198 / 200

Category: Reasoning

1 points

58. A building has 9 floors, numbered 1 to 9. Each floor is occupied by a different person: M, N, O, P, Q, R, S, T, and U. The following conditions apply: 1) S lives on an odd-numbered floor. 2) N lives three floors above T. 3) O lives on an even-numbered floor and immediately below U. 4) R lives on floor 8. 5) M lives below Q. 6) P lives between N and T. 7) U does not live on the top floor. 8) T is not on floor 1. Where does S live?

199 / 200

Category: Reasoning

1 points

59. Five friends, Alex, Ben, Charlie, David, and Ethan, have scheduled meetings on five consecutive days from Monday to Friday. Each friend has one meeting on a different day. Based on the following clues, determine which friend has a meeting on which day:
1. Alex's meeting is before Ben's.
2. Charlie has his meeting two days after Alex.
3. David has his meeting the day before Ethan.
4. Ben has his meeting on Wednesday.

200 / 200

Category: Reasoning

1 points

60. Eight boxes labeled J, K, L, M, N, O, P, and Q are stacked vertically. They have items with two attributes: material (Wood, Metal, Plastic, Glass) and shape (Cube, Sphere, Cone, Cylinder). Conditions: 1) The Metal box is not at the bottom and is a Sphere. 2) The Cube is made of Wood and is three places below the Glass box. 3) The Plastic Cylinder is directly above the Metal box. 4) The Glass Cone is immediately above the Wooden Cube. 5) The bottom box is a Sphere. Which box is at the top?

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